Jah-son
Well-known member
I just finished "preparing" my Watchtower study for today's meeting. Thank God for the new 2x speed for the audio reader.
Apparently nulite has been bestowed upon the FFDS as regards Daniel 12:2 as followes:
• Dan 12: 2And many of those asleep in the dust of the earth will wake up, some to everlasting life and others to reproach and to everlasting contempt.
Par 6: "This prophecy is not referring to a symbolic resurrection, a spiritual revival of God’s servants that occurs during the last days, as we previously understood. Rather, these words refer to the resurrection of the dead that takes place in the coming new world."
Ummmm...really?! It took the holy spirit over 100 years to reveal to you that this is referring to the literal resurrection? Am I reading that correctly!?
And look at this little gem of a statement that will go over everyone's heads:
Par 4: "Daniel 12:1 reveals that Michael, who is Jesus Christ, is “standing in behalf of [God’s] people.” That part of the prophecy began to be fulfilled in 1914 when Jesus was appointed as King of God’s heavenly Kingdom. However, Daniel was also told that Jesus would “stand up” during “a time of distress such as has not occurred since there came to be a nation until that time."
"Also told" where was he "also told"!? It's part of the same sentence you knuckleheads! But it doesn't fit their 1914 blunder so they have to try and round the square peg to fit the round hole. So they split it into 2 different events. We are led to believe that he stood up in 1914 and he stood up again at Armageddon? Where is that indicated in the scripture? How is it that no one questions this? They just make up whatever they want to.
Apparently nulite has been bestowed upon the FFDS as regards Daniel 12:2 as followes:
• Dan 12: 2And many of those asleep in the dust of the earth will wake up, some to everlasting life and others to reproach and to everlasting contempt.
Par 6: "This prophecy is not referring to a symbolic resurrection, a spiritual revival of God’s servants that occurs during the last days, as we previously understood. Rather, these words refer to the resurrection of the dead that takes place in the coming new world."
Ummmm...really?! It took the holy spirit over 100 years to reveal to you that this is referring to the literal resurrection? Am I reading that correctly!?
And look at this little gem of a statement that will go over everyone's heads:
Par 4: "Daniel 12:1 reveals that Michael, who is Jesus Christ, is “standing in behalf of [God’s] people.” That part of the prophecy began to be fulfilled in 1914 when Jesus was appointed as King of God’s heavenly Kingdom. However, Daniel was also told that Jesus would “stand up” during “a time of distress such as has not occurred since there came to be a nation until that time."
"Also told" where was he "also told"!? It's part of the same sentence you knuckleheads! But it doesn't fit their 1914 blunder so they have to try and round the square peg to fit the round hole. So they split it into 2 different events. We are led to believe that he stood up in 1914 and he stood up again at Armageddon? Where is that indicated in the scripture? How is it that no one questions this? They just make up whatever they want to.