Matthew 4:3,6 NWT translation difference

mts

Well-known member
In the NWT of the bible, a section of these verses read: 'If you are a son of God'
However, in other versions of the bible, it reads: 'If thou be the Son of God' (KJV, NIV, etc.)

I am no English grammar expert, but when I read this, it left me thinking, "a son of God" implies a different meaning than "the son of God". Using "a" versus "the", to me, would imply that Jesus, and the angels (including Satan), are equals or holding a same/similar position before God. That is, not holding any special or unique position or privilege before God. Jesus is the Son of God and holds this unique position, but using "a" appears to demean this status.

My question then is, what should be the accurate translation of these verses, to use, "a" or "the", of which, to me, although a minor subtlety, do lead to different understandings with regards to Jesus unique status before God? Using "a" instead of "the" makes these verses suggest Satan is mocking Jesus too.

Final note, since I don't read the bible much in English (but yet in other languages), this was a subtlety I never really caught until a short time ago.
 

A B

Well-known member
This sounds like the definite/indefinite article issue that created the confusion with John 1:1. I'm thinking the NWT is probably the more accurate rendering because of this issue. I also don't think Satan knew who Jesus was at this point. If you go to a costume party and you recognize your friend 'Mike' is there you might say 'Mike please pass me the nuts.' But if you don't recognize Mike then it might be 'Napoleon please pass the nuts.'

Jesus' true identity is a prominent feature of the sacred secret. It was never announced, it is only in hindsight that we are able to figure it out. Satan would not think Jesus was Michael because never before was a life force transferred into an embryo. It was unheard of and also meant the donor sort of died and lost consciousness until it was returned to him.

Varying English translations are not really about if Jesus is equal or superior to other angels. The verse is only about Satan trying to ascertain and manipulate. Adam's title was Son of God. Jesus' title was Son of God. That is the extent of what could be assumed about him, aside from the very vague Micah 5:2.

See Young's Literal Translation. See also Luke 4:3
 

DoubleThink333

Well-known member
Thank you for sharing this difference in translation! I agree that THE Son of God is a more accurate description of Jesus. But actually, I think both translations may be correct. Consider the fact that the angels and even satan himself are technically “sons of God” as described in Genesis 6:2 “the sons of the true God began to notice that the daughters of men were beautiful. So they began taking as wives all whom they chose.” Jesus is THE Son of God because Jesus was Jehovah’s first creation and his only begotten Son, everything else was created through Jesus, for Jesus and “by“ Jesus with Jehovah as the grand architect and Jesus as the master builder.
Satan knew who Jesus was when he tried to tempt him in the wilderness. I don’t believe Satan would offer his dominion over the earthly governments as payment for an act of worship to anyone else but Jesus. Perhaps the NWT is more accurate in exemplifying Satan’s contempt for Jesus’ authority by referring to him as “a son of God” rather than acknowledging his true title of “THE Son of God”.
 

evw

Well-known member
nd i
In the NWT of the bible, a section of these verses read: 'If you are a son of God'
However, in other versions of the bible, it reads: 'If thou be the Son of God' (KJV, NIV, etc.)

I am no English grammar expert, but when I read this, it left me thinking, "a son of God" implies a different meaning than "the son of God". Using "a" versus "the", to me, would imply that Jesus, and the angels (including Satan), are equals or holding a same/similar position before God. That is, not holding any special or unique position or privilege before God. Jesus is the Son of God and holds this unique position, but using "a" appears to demean this status.

My question then is, what should be the accurate translation of these verses, to use, "a" or "the", of which, to me, although a minor subtlety, do lead to different understandings with regards to Jesus unique status before God? Using "a" instead of "the" makes these verses suggest Satan is mocking Jesus too.

Final note, since I don't read the bible much in English (but yet in other languages), this was a subtlety I never really caught until a short time ago.


In the NWT of the bible, a section of these verses read: 'If you are a son of God'
However, in other versions of the bible, it reads: 'If thou be the Son of God' (KJV, NIV, etc.)

I am no English grammar expert, but when I read this, it left me thinking, "a son of God" implies a different meaning than "the son of God". Using "a" versus "the", to me, would imply that Jesus, and the angels (including Satan), are equals or holding a same/similar position before God. That is, not holding any special or unique position or privilege before God. Jesus is the Son of God and holds this unique position, but using "a" appears to demean this status.

My question then is, what should be the accurate translation of these verses, to use, "a" or "the", of which, to me, although a minor subtlety, do lead to different understandings with regards to Jesus unique status before God? Using "a" instead of "the" makes these verses suggest Satan is mocking Jesus too.

Final note, since I don't read the bible much in English (but yet in other languages), this was a subtlety I never really caught until a short time ago.
Perhaps the English-Greek Intelial translation can help, along with Google translate?

the definite article :
Greek - ένα - English - a - or a conjugation thereof
Greek - ο - English - the - or a conjugation thereof

Matt. 4 v 3:
Greek - «Εσύ είσαι ο γιος του Θεού,». - English - "You are the son of God."
Instead of:
Greek - «Του είπε: «Είσαι γιος του Θεού,». - English - "You are a son of God." - no use of definite articles in Greek

Matt. 4 v 6:
Greek - "Είσαι ο γιος του Θεού." - English - "You are the son of God."
Instead of:
Greek - «ένας γιος του Θεού». - English - “You are a son of God.” -

This is what I found ;)

btw, i am almost convinced that in the nwt before 1984 it said 'the' and not 'a', but unfortunately it is 'misplaced' in all removals. So I can't be certain.
 
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Ana

Well-known member
En mi KH anterior teníamos dos familias griegas que, además de hablar inglés, escribían y hablaban griego. Fueron un recurso increíble para situaciones como estas.
Heredé de mi padre el Nuevo Testamento en griego. Es maravilloso poder tenerlo traducido literalmente, es muy enriquecedor. La profundidad es muy completa.
 

Watchman

Moderator
Staff member
The Greek Interlinear, which you can access by clicking on the number of any verse and then clicking on the layered book icon on the upper right-hand side of the page, does not have a definite article modifying "son". It is as A.B. has stated. Since there was no indefinite article in Greek it is up to the translator to insert it if warranted. Of course, it is the translators' discretion. But had Satan intended to say "if you are the Son of God" the definite article would have been used in the Greek. It apparently wasn't.
 
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mts

Well-known member
Thank you all for sharing your thoughts, comments and research. That was my intent, to open this up for discussion. Much appreciated. I do have old copies of the 1984 NWT (English) bible and looked up Matthew 4:3 and it uses "A" not "THE". I have read this account in Matthew 4:1-10 many, many times, but it wasn't until I read it in English that I had another understanding to it based on the use of this article "A". In other languages it just doesn't stand out as much to me perhaps because my understanding of grammar in those languages isn't as strong; nonetheless, it is translated correctly from my knowledge.
 

evw

Well-known member
Thank you all for sharing your thoughts, comments and research. That was my intent, to open this up for discussion. Much appreciated. I do have old copies of the 1984 NWT (English) bible and looked up Matthew 4:3 and it uses "A" not "THE". I have read this account in Matthew 4:1-10 many, many times, but it wasn't until I read it in English that I had another understanding to it based on the use of this article "A". In other languages it just doesn't stand out as much to me perhaps because my understanding of grammar in those languages isn't as strong; nonetheless, it is translated correctly from my knowledge.
the 1984 NWT (English)
Yes I know, but I was searging for my Bible from before 1984 (I think it was fgrom the '60-ties or so) and that one I cou;dn't find anymore.
 
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